PDA

View Full Version : Pre-Nicaean use of the word ομοουσιος ?


mountainman
October 31, 2006, 12:59 AM
We have Isaac Newton here (http://www.newtonproject.ic.ac.uk/texts/viewtext.php?id=THEM00011&mode=normalized) wondering ...

Whether the word ομοουσιος ever was in any Creed before the Nicene; or any Creed was produced by any one Bishop at the Council of Nice for authorizing the use of that word.

The answer to his question is still NO?




Pete Brown

guy_683930
October 31, 2006, 09:59 AM
The word homoousios was used in the Synods of Antioch, but it was condemned for being "sabellianist". The objectors to Nicene made use of that, but they still lost out.