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Jyrinx
June 8, 2007, 04:05 PM
Are UN Security Council resolutions passed simultaneously in both English and French (that is to say, translation occurs beforehand and the vote is considered a vote on both texts at once) or after a resolution has been adopted in either English or French?

I ask because of a paragraph from a link provided in the Wikipedia article on UN Security Council Resolution 242


There is one final thing to be said concerning the missing "the." Some commentators have argued that since the French "version" of 242 does contain the phrase "the territories," the resolution does in fact require total Israeli withdrawal. This is incorrect — the practice in the UN is that the binding version of any resolution is the one voted upon, which is always in the language of the introducing party. In the case of 242 that party was Great Britain, thus the binding version of 242 is in English. The French translation is irrelevant


(from http://www.camera.org/index.asp?x_article=196&x_context=2)

Jyrinx
June 25, 2007, 08:24 PM
Ok, one (and only one) bump to try and elicit a response. I'll let it die after that.

Diabolical Vengeance
June 26, 2007, 09:58 AM
I think the wik makes it clear that resolutions are drafted in the language of the author country. The UN has many translators on staff, many provide on the spot translations (during speeches, debates, etc) and it wouldn't surprise me if their translators work on written texts as well. Before you have a vote on a motion, the motion needs to be seconded or have enough sponsors\signatories. I would say they vote on the original, and then worry about translating it.