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Gorit Maqueda
May 15, 2008, 03:01 PM
I have read somewhere that the Dead Sea Scrolls have shown that, in many cases, the Greek translations found in the Greek Septuagint are superior (in the sense of "closer to the original texts") to those found in the Masoretic Texts.

Can anyone give me a couple of examples?

John Kesler
May 15, 2008, 04:40 PM
I have read somewhere that the Dead Sea Scrolls have shown that, in many cases, the Greek translations found in the Greek Septuagint are superior (in the sense of "closer to the original texts") to those found in the Masoretic Texts.

Can anyone give me a couple of examples?

Two examples in which it appears that the MT has "corrected" the text, with the LXX retaining what is likely the original are these:

1) Deuteronomy 32:8, in which the MT says "sons of Israel" while the LXX and DSS say "sons of El/god." See more here (http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthread.php?p=4560076#post4560076).

2) Genesis 21:14, in which the MT tries to alleviate the discrepancy regarding Ishmael's age. See here (http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=212486) for more.

Solitary Man
May 15, 2008, 04:49 PM
http://neonostalgia.com/forum/index.php?topic=11.0