student738
August 31, 2003, 10:26 AM
Suppose that I am a wealthy tyrant. Out of boredom I hire a man, and knowing that he will faithfully carry out my requests, I order him, "Go into the villge. At each intersection, close your eyes and fire a single shot down each street, making no effort to aim at anything in particular. Once you have fired at least once from every intersection, return to me for further instructions."
I know it is possible that my hired servant will kill a person under my orders. However, I also know it is possible that my hired servant under my orders will not kill a person.
I do not intend that my servant kill a person, and I have no desire that he do so. Ordering my servant to fire at least once from each intersection, in and of itself satisfies me.
1) If my servant kills a person under these orders, do I bear more moral responsibility than I would had my servant killed no person?
2) If my servant kills a person under these orders, do I bear less moral responsibility for the killing of the person than I would if my servant kills a person under the orders to go into the village and not leave until he has killed a person?
If to (2) you reply "Yes, you would bear less moral responsibillity", would your reply change for differing values of the probability that a rogue bullet will kill a person?
To (2) I would answer, tentatively, that I bear equal moral responsibility in both cases providing that certain conditions are met: a) I freely give the orders, and b) there is an "unreasonably high" probability that my giving the orders will result in a person being killed, and c) there is reasonable expectation that I consider it to be the case that (b) is true.
I can clearly provide an example of what would be an "unreasonably high" probability, and certainly we could reach widespread agreement over it, but of course it is not so clear what value minimally constitutes an "unreasonably high" probability. This, however, need not concern us yet.
...hopefully I have it all there as I intended; I am a bit tired just now.
I know it is possible that my hired servant will kill a person under my orders. However, I also know it is possible that my hired servant under my orders will not kill a person.
I do not intend that my servant kill a person, and I have no desire that he do so. Ordering my servant to fire at least once from each intersection, in and of itself satisfies me.
1) If my servant kills a person under these orders, do I bear more moral responsibility than I would had my servant killed no person?
2) If my servant kills a person under these orders, do I bear less moral responsibility for the killing of the person than I would if my servant kills a person under the orders to go into the village and not leave until he has killed a person?
If to (2) you reply "Yes, you would bear less moral responsibillity", would your reply change for differing values of the probability that a rogue bullet will kill a person?
To (2) I would answer, tentatively, that I bear equal moral responsibility in both cases providing that certain conditions are met: a) I freely give the orders, and b) there is an "unreasonably high" probability that my giving the orders will result in a person being killed, and c) there is reasonable expectation that I consider it to be the case that (b) is true.
I can clearly provide an example of what would be an "unreasonably high" probability, and certainly we could reach widespread agreement over it, but of course it is not so clear what value minimally constitutes an "unreasonably high" probability. This, however, need not concern us yet.
...hopefully I have it all there as I intended; I am a bit tired just now.